## Multiple Choice Answers

1. What bias conditions must be present for the normal operation of a transistor amplifier?
A. Both junctions must be forward biased.
B. The emitter-base junction must be reverse biased, and the collector-base junction must be forward biased.
C. The emitter-base junction must be forward biased, and the collector-base junction must be reverse biased.
D. Both junctions must be reverse biased.

2. The unit for measuring electric power is the
A. volt.
B. ampere.
C. watt.
D. ohm.

3. The magnitude of the voltage induced in a conductor moving through a stationary magnetic field depends on the _______ and the _______ of the conductor.
A. distance, circumference
B. length, speed
C. resistance, current
D. color, capacitance

4. When an electric current flows through a long conductor, each free electron moves
A. with a speed of 300,000,000 m/s.
B. from one end of the conductor to the other end.
C. through a relatively short distance.
D. back and forth between the ends of the conductor.

5. The function of a capacitor in an electric circuit is to
A. allow current flow between its plates.
B. increase circuit power.
C. measure the amount of current in the circuit.
D. store electric charges.

6. A transformer has a primary voltage of 115 V and a secondary voltage of 24 V. If the number of turns in the primary is 345, how many turns are in the secondary?
A. 1,653
B. 690
C. 72
D. 8

7. The grid in a high-vacuum triode is usually kept negatively charged with respect to the cathode so that the electrons may be
A. accelerated toward the anode.
B. attracted to the cathode instead of the grid.
C. attracted to the anode instead of the grid.
D. accelerated toward the cathode.

8. The available source of charge that pushes a charge through a circuit is
A. resistance.
B. direct current.
C. voltage.
D. alternating current.

9. A PNP transistor is connected in a circuit so that the collector-base junction remains reverse biased and the emitter-base junction is forward biased. This transistor can be used as a power amplifier because
A. the output voltage will be much smaller than the input voltage.
B. the output current will be much smaller than the input current.
C. the output current will be much larger than the input current.
D. the output voltage will be much larger than the input voltage.

10. A complete circuit contains two parallel-connected devices and a generator for providing the electromotive force. The resistance of the first device is 12 ohms, the resistance of the second device is 4 ohms, and the voltage developed by the generator is 40 V. What is the magnitude of the current flowing through the first device?
A. 10 A
B. 8 A
C. 13.32 A
D. 3.33 A

11. If an electrically uncharged body is contacted by an electrically charged body, the uncharged body will
A. neutralize the charged body.
B. remain a neutrally charged body.
C. develop the opposite charge as the charged body.
D. develop the same charge as the charged body.

12. Which of the following frequencies falls in the range of RF waves used by commercial radio broadcasting stations?
A. 6,000 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 6,000,000 Hz
D. 600,000 Hz

13. An electric heating element is connected to a 110 V circuit and a current of 3.2 A is flowing through the element. How much energy is used up during a period of 5 hours by the element?
A. 1,760 Wh
B. 352 Wh
C. 550 Wh
D. 2,580 Wh

14. When an electron is displaced in a semiconductor, the hole that’s left behind is
A. attracted to the negative terminal of the voltage source.
B. attracted to the anode of the voltage source.
C. considered an impurity in the crystal.
D. incapable of carrying a charge.

15. A transmission system at a radio station uses a/an _______ to convert a direct current into a high frequency alternating current.
A. oscillator
B. demodulator
C. modulator
D. transmitting antenna

16. The relationship between a cathode and an anode involves
A. electrons.
B. neutrons.
C. diodes.
D. protons.
The following question is based on the figure below.

17. If you want to stop the current flow through Device 3 in the circuit shown above, which one of the following single switches should you open?
A. Switch S2
B. Switch S5
C. Switch S4
D. Switch S3

18. In a cathode ray tube, the number of electrons that reach the fluorescent screen is controlled by the
A. grid.
B. cathode.
C. anode.
D. deflecting plate.

19. If a bar of copper is brought near a magnet, the copper bar will be
A. made into an induced magnet.
B. repelled by the magnet.
C. unaffected by the magnet.
D. attracted by the magnet.

20. A battery consists of five dry cells connected in series. If the voltage developed by each cell is 1.5 V, the total voltage developed by the battery is
A. 1.5 V.
B. 0.3 V.
C. 7.5 V.
D. 5.0 V.

## Multiple Choice Answers

Question 1
If, as a plant manager, you entered the question “Can we change working hours?” into the company’s intranet search and received feedback on the company’s policies regarding work hours, plus state and federal guidelines, summaries of relevant laws, model documents, and new reports concerning alternative work schedules, you would probably be using a(n):
virtual team network.
performance management system.
shared service center.
self-service system.

Question 2
What effect does the use of employee empowerment have on recruiting?
Makes the recruitment process less time consuming and costly than before
Substantially enhances employment opportunities for women and minorities
Shifts focus away from technical skills to general cognitive and interpersonal skills
Creats an international labor market and significantly reduces recruiting costs

Question 3
The right to freedom of speech is the right to:
criticize an organization’s ethics if they do so in good conscience.
refuse to do something that is environmentally unsafe.
do as they wish in their private life.
to be treated only as they knowingly and willingly consent to be treated.

Question 4
A great deal of HR information is confidential and not suitable for posting on a Web site for everyone to see. One solution is to set up e-HRM on a(n) __________, which is a network that uses Internet tools but limits access to authorized users in the organization.
website
intranet
internet portal
Shared service center
Question 5
The reliance on knowledge workers also affects organizations’ decisions about the kinds of people they are recruiting and selecting leading them to emphasize on:
specific job skills.
job foundation skills.
operative skills.
general cognitive skills.

Question 6
Which of the following refers to a condition in which employment practices are seemingly neutral yet disproportionately exclude a protected group from employment?
Disparate impact
Disparate treatment
Fortuitous treatment
Accidental action

Question 7
Which of the following is a standard that human resource managers must satisfy for HRM practices to be ethical?
Respect for the principle of employment-at-will
Greatest good for the largest number of people
Respect for employees’ right of lifetime employment
Maintaining the policy that customers are right

Question 8
A system in which employees have online access to information about HR issues and go online to enroll themselves in programs and provide feedback through surveys is termed:
self-service.
payroll automation.
job enrichment.
e-HR management.

Question 9
Disparate treatment could be legal if the discrimination is:
resulting in increased efficiency.
for a bona fide occupational qualification.
performed by a governmental organization.
intended to reduce reverse discrimination.

Question 10
Which of the following is an implication of e-HRM for the HRM practice of analysis and design of work?
Job openings can be posted online and candidates can apply for jobs online.
Online learning and simulations can bring training to employees anywhere, anytime.
Employees can review salary and seek information about, and enroll in benefit plans.
Employees in geographically dispersed locations can work together in virtual teams.

## Multiple Choice Answers

1. What was Mustafa Ataturk’s contribution to modern Turkey?
A. He was instrumental in policy changes that gave Turkey membership in NATO.
B. He breathed new vitality into Turkish culture through religious reforms.
C. He established a democratic, parliamentary government.
D. He began the process of turning Turkey into a modernized, secular state.

2. Which of the following global religions arose in India?
A. Buddhis
B. Hinduis
C. Sikhism
D. Jainism

3. The 1959 Nile Water Agreement between Egypt and _______ led to the construction of the Aswan High Dam.
A. Sudan
B. Syria
C. Libya
D. Saudi Arabia

4. In which of the following countries are Shia Muslims the majority?
A. Iran
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Turkey
D. Yemen

5. Which of the following statements about Nepal is true?
A. It became a democracy in the 1980s.
B. Up until 2006, Maoist guerillas caused major disruptions in urban areas.
C. The country’s official policy emphasizes “gross national happiness.”
D. It’s a Muslim country that has fostered good relations with the British.

6. Sudanese violence against non-Arab peoples in the western province of Darfur has introduced the world to the term Janjaweed. What does this term translate to in English?
A. “Paramilitary assassin”
B. “Devil on horseback with a gun”
C. “Criminal bandit”
D. “Rapist assassin”

7. Medinas capture the unique historical character and social patterns of cities in North Africa and Southwest Asia. Labyrinths of winding alleys and many kinds of souks are typical features. What are souks?
A. Commercial areas
B. Ethnic quarters
C. Bordellos
D. Sacred sites

8. The center of the largest film industry in the world, “Bollywood,” and Dharavi, the largest slum in India, are both located in
A. Kolkata.
B. Mumbai.
C. Chennai.
D. Delhi.

9. The last great empire centered in Southwest Asia was the _______ Empire.
A. Mongol
B. Roman
C. Ottoman
D. Byzantine

10. Monotheism, a religious doctrine that recognizes a single supreme god, first arose in Southwest Asia around _________ BC.
A. 1000
B. 230
C. 2500
D. 600

11. With regard to the Indo-Pakistan dispute over Kashmir, which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. The British sold the rulership of Kashmir to a Muslim prince.
B. After a 1948 ceasefire ended a Pakistani invasion of 1947, Pakistan returned captured Kashmiri territory to India.
C. At independence in 1947, the Kashmiris voted to be part of Pakistan.
D. The Simla Agreement of 1972 established the current line of control between Pakistan and India.

12. Among regional languages, _______ combines Hindi with Arabic script and is the official language of _______.
A. Punjabi; Afghanistan
B. Sinhalese; Sri Lanka
C. Urdu; Pakistan

13. Among the most populous of South Asian cities, Karachi is located in _______ and Dhaka is located in _______.
B. India; Pakistan

14. Mohandas Gandhi adopted his creed of nonviolence and respect for life from the religious doctrines of
A. Jainism.
B. Sikhism.
C. Islam.
D. Buddhism.

15. The entire region of Northern Africa and Southwest Asia is dominated by
A. climates in which rainfall is either abundant or all but entirely absent.
B. steppe climates.
C. desert climates.
D. climates in which the evaporation exceeds precipitation.

16. After the Iranian Revolution of 1979 brought the Ayatollah Khomeini to power, fundamentalist Islamic sharia law was infused into Iranian government policies. In reaction to this development, most
A. Sunni Muslims rejected sharia law, because most Iranians are Shia.
B. Muslim countries also adopted sharia law.
C. Muslim countries turned to terrorism to further Muslim interests.
D. Muslim countries rejected and suppressed Islamic fundamentalists.

17. Which of the following statements is true with regard to Pakistan?
A. Former Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto was elected president in 2008.
B. Between 1980 and the early 2000s, literacy rates increased only slightly.
C. U.S. sanctions imposed on Pakistan after its nuclear tests were dropped in late 2001.
D. General Pervez Musharraf seized power in 1999 to establish a democratic government.

18. With regard to British influences on India, which of the following statements is true?
A. The common name for the British Indian Empire was the “British Raj.”B. The British East India Company ruled India after a sepoy rebellion in 1867.
C. A primary objective of British rule was attaining food self-sufficiency for Indians.D. The British Indian Army was not expected to serve British interests beyond India.

19. Among the countries on the margins of the South Asian region, population growth and fertility are highest in
A. Afghanistan.
B. the Maldives.
C. Nepal.
D. Sri Lanka.

20. Among Hindus, members of the lowest caste are commonly referred to by the term dalit, which means
A. “oppressed.”
B. “segregated.”
D. “despised.”

## Multiple Choice Answers

1. A department adds raw materials to a process at the beginning of the process and incurs conversion costs uniformly throughout the process. For the month of January, there were no units in the beginning work in process inventory; 80,000 units were started into production in January; and there were 20,000 units that were 40% complete in the ending work in process inventory at the end of January. What were the equivalent units of production for materials for the month of January?
a. 88,000 equivalent units.
b. 72,000 equivalent units.
c. 60,000 equivalent units.
d. 80,000 equivalent units.

2. A department adds raw materials to a process at the beginning of the process and incurs conversion costs uniformly throughout the process. For the month of January, there were no units in the beginning work in process inventory; 80,000 units were started into production in January; and there were 20,000 units that were 40% complete in the ending work in process inventory at the end of January. What were the equivalent units of production for conversion costs for the month of January?
a. 60,000 equivalent units.
b. 72,000 equivalent units.
c. 68,000 equivalent units.
d. 80,000 equivalent units.

3. In the month of June, a department had 20,000 units in beginning work in process that were 70% complete. During June, 80,000 units were transferred into production from another department. At the end of June there were 10,000 units in ending work in process that were 40% complete. Materials are added at the beginning of the process, while conversion costs are incurred uniformly throughout the process. How many units were transferred out of the process in June?
a. 80,000 units.
b. 70,000 units.
c. 90,000 units.
d. 100,000 units.

4. Harvey’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost \$33,000. If sales are expected to increase \$60,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?
a. \$27,000
b. \$42,000
c. \$18,000
d. \$9,000

## Multiple Choice Answers

1. If the resistance of an electric circuit is 12 ohms and the voltage in the circuit is 60 V, the current flowing through the circuit is
A. 5 A.
B. 60 A.
C. 0.2 A.
D. 720 A.

2. When all parts of a circuit are composed of conducting materials, the circuit is said to be
A. parallel.
B. open.
C. shorted.
D. closed.

3. The part of the atom that accounts for electricity is the
A. neutron.
B. nucleus.
C. electron.
D. proton.

4. A circuit contains two devices that are connected in parallel. If the resistance of one of these devices is 12 ohms and the resistance of the other device is 4 ohms, the total resistance of the two devices is
A. 16 ohms.
B. 0.333 ohms.
C. 0.0625 ohms.
D. 3 ohms.

5. An example of an atom that has no charge is one that has
A. 3 protons, 2 electrons, and 1 neutron.
B. 2 protons, 2 electrons, and 1 neutron.
C. 3 protons, 1 electron, and 3 neutrons.
D. 1 proton, 2 electrons, and 3 neutrons.