Satellite locations

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10.59 A hospital conducted a study of the waiting time in its Emergency room. The hospital has a main campus and three Satellite locations. Management had a business objective of reducing waiting time for emergency room cases that did not require immediate attention. To study this, a random sample of 15 emergency room cases that did not require immediate attention at each location were selected on a particular day, and the waiting times (measured from check-in to when the patient was called into the clinic area) were collected and stored in ERWaiting . a. At the 0.05 level of significance, is there evidence of a difference in the mean waiting times in the four locations? b. If appropriate, determine which locations differ in mean waiting time. c. At the 0.05 level of significance, is there evidence of a difference in the variation in waiting time among the four locations?


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Exam: 501594RR – The Business of Organized Crime
1. Which criminal was described as a “narcoterrorist” and may have been responsible for as many as 400
murders, including those of politicians and police officers?
A. Javier Vasquez-Velaso
B. Joseph Valachi
C. Pablo Escobar
D. David Carruthers
2. About half of the 30 million foreign visitors to the United States each year come from
A. territories owned or protected by the United States.
B. countries with serious organized crime problems.
C. “friendly” countries from which no entrance visa is required.
D. nations whose governments are known to cooperate with organized crime and terrorism.
3. According to the TFR, organized crime flourishes only where it has
A. little government oversight.
B. corrupt local officials.
C. casinos and other gambling venues.
D. large populations of Italian-Americans.
4. Who was captured and convicted after an examination of his net worth?
A. Joseph Valachi
B. Al Capone
C. George Conway
D. Joseph Albini
5. What percentage of the world’s cocaine supply comes from Columbia?
A. 21%
B. 41%
C. 81%
D. 61%
6. Customs Service, International Revenue Service (IRS), and the US Secret Service were all at one time
part of the
A. Federal Bureau of Investigation.
B. Department of Justice.
C. Department of Treasury.
D. Drug Enforcement Administration.
7. In 1954, the Organized Crime and Racketeering Section was formed by the
A. Central Intelligence Agency.
B. Internal Revenue Service.
C. Department of Justice.
D. Department of Labor.
8. Federal organized crime investigations are coordinated by the Organized Crime Section at _______
9. _______ involves exploiting labor, harboring victims, and coercion.
A. International drug smuggling
B. Human trafficking
C. Racketeering
D. Internet crime
10. An investigative assessment of income, expenditures, and net worth designed to determine the presence of illegal income is known as a
A. tax audit.
B. financial analysis.
C. revenue-to-expenditure audit.
D. bank account analysis.
11. _______ is a term that originated in the 1920s and that refers to thefts of truckloads of illegally
manufactured liquor.
A. Ransom
B. Hijacking
C. Moonshining
D. Ajacking
12. The President’s Commission on Organized Crime reported to President
A. Johnson.
B. Reagan.
C. Nixon.
D. Clinton.
13. Which act, passed after the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks in New York and Washington, permits the government to use electronic surveillance with probable cause?
A. US Wiretap Act
B. Domestic Defense Act
C. USA Patriot Act
D. Homeland Security Initiative Act
14. The witness protection program in the United States was founded by
A. Ronald Reagan.
B. Gerald Shur.
C. Lyndon Johnson.
D. James Walston.
15. The President’s Commission on Organized crime characterizes crime groups by _______ despite the
fact that this isn’t a good predictor of criminal behavior.
A. revenue
B. size
C. ethnicity
D. type of crime
16. A total of _______ states have adopted electronic surveillance laws that are similar to Title III of the
Omnibus Crime Control Act (1968).
A. 18
B. 29
C. 32
D. 45
17. Roughly how many vehicles are stolen each year in the United States?
A. 15,000
B. 1.5 million
C. 150,000
D. 500,000
18. When an organized crime group is made up of individuals who shift alliances according to the skills
they possess to carry out their crimes, the organization is said to be a/an
A. core criminal group.
B. rigid hierarchy.
C. organized criminal network.
D. hierarchical conglomerate.
19. According to the United Nations List of Transnational Crimes, the crime of trafficking in persons
would fall under the category of
A. Provision of Illicit Services.
B. Provision of Illicit Goods.
C. Infiltration of Businesses.
D. Theft of Intellectual Property.
20. The added element of _______ in human trafficking makes it different from alien smuggling.
A. disease
B. forced labor
C. prostitution
D. drug use


Alternating current Motors

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Exam: 4032RR – Alternating-current Motors

1. To double the rated speed of an eight-pole squirrel-cage motor, the common method is to reconnect the
motor as a
A. sixteen-pole motor.
B. six-pole motor.
C. two-pole motor.
D. four-pole motor.

2. The total load of an industrial plant is 4000 kW, and the load operates at a power factor of 0.85 lag. If
an 800-hp synchronous motor with 93.5% rated efficiency and operating at unity power factor is added,
what is the new value of power factor, in percent?
A. 88.2%
B. 76.0%
C. 89.5%
D. 98.6%

3. During the starting of a synchronous motor, the common practice is to
A. place a resistance across the field winding..
B. leave the field open-circuited..
C. apply d-c field excitation immediately.
D. open the circuit of the damper winding.

4. The purpose of a double-squirrel-cage secondary in an induction motor is to by
A. reduce primary heating effects.
B. produce two rotating magnetic fields.
C. create special current characteristics.
D. develop minimum torque at starting speeds.

5. Which of the following is true of the operation of a synchronous motor?
A. It is started by applying direct current.
B. It develops full slip at synchronous speed.
C. It is started by the amortisseur winding.
D. It has an open-circuit field winding.

6. The starter of a phase-wound induction motor consists of a
A. series resistance in the primary.
B. compensator in the secondary.
C. rheostat connected to the secondary.
D. reactor connected to the primary.

7. A synchronous motor operating at unity power factor on a 550-V circuit has a rated field current of 12 A
and a pull-out torque of 160%. If the line voltage drops to 500 V and the field current decreases to 10 A,
what is the approximate maximum load, in percent, that the machine can carry for 1 min?
A. 121.21%
B. 75.75%
C. 145.45%
D. 174.48%

8. If a certain motor develops 10 ft-lb torque with an operating voltage of 110 V and is capable of carrying
the resulting current at a new voltage of 220 V, what is the new value of torque, in foot-pounds?
A. 5.0
B. 2.5
C. 40.0
D. 20.0

9. When a-c voltage is first applied to a large squirrel-cage induction motor and the rotor has not yet begun
to rotate, there is
A. full pull-out torque.
B. zero locked-rotor current.
C. maximum initial slip.
D. minimum starting resistance.

10. To produce a rotating magnetic field for starting a single-phase induction motor, the common method is
to use
A. three field resistors different in value.
B. an autotransformer device.
C. a short-circuited slip ring assembly.
D. displaced voltages in two windings.

11. If a synchronous motor rated at 80% leading power factor operates at 50% load, what is the armature
current, expressed in percent of rated value?
A. 38.0%
B. 47.0%
C. 54.0%
D. 66.0%

12. The preferred method for applying the field excitation voltage uses a field relay which operates on the
principle of
A. thermal application.
B. time application.
C. speed application.
D. angle application.

13. The type of induction motor enclosure preferred for installation in a moist and corrosive atmosphere is
A. splashproof motor.
B. open dripproof motor.
C. totally enclosed fan-cooled motor.
D. weather-protected type I motor.

14. The practice of interchanging two of the three leads of a running polyphase induction motor is referred
to as
A. accelerating.
B. slipping.
C. plugging.
D. synchronizing.

15. If a four-pole 60-Hz induction motor has a 6% slip in normal operation, the actual speed is
A. 1728 r/min.
B. 108 r /min.
C. 1800 r/min.
D. 1692 r/min.

16. After a synchronous motor has reached the synchronizing speed, the best time to apply the field current
is when the
A. rotor poles are traveling faster than the stator poles.
B. induced field current is increasing to a maximum value.
C. north rotor poles are directly opposite the south stator poles.
D. south stator poles are opposite the south rotor poles.

17. In the normal operation of an induction motor, the rotor turns at less than synchronous speed in order
A. create less heating of the squirrel-cage bars.
B. produce sufficient voltage to develop the required torque.
C. develop circulating currents in the stator frame.
D. overcome windage and friction losses.

18. If a 5-hp three-phase induction motor operates on a 230-V system with an efficiency of 93.5% and a
power factor of 80% at normal operation, what is the current, in amperes, approximately?
A. 12.5
B. 21.7
C. 10.0
D. 11.7

19. To drive a 1000-hp load at unity power factor and constant speed, the recommended type of a-c motor
is the
A. single-phase induction type.
B. polyphase synchronous type.
C. single-phase synchronous type.
D. polyphase induction type.

20. The type of motor often used for ship propulsion applications is the
A. synchronous motor.
B. induction motor.
C. shaded-pole motor.
D. repulsion motor.



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Exam: 501161RR – Preventing and Policing White-Collar Crime
1. White-collar crime literature ignores all of the following theories except _______ theory.
A. routine activities
B. life course
C. gender
D. social disorganization

2. Which of the following is not a factor identified by Tillman and Pontell that contributes to the leniency
given to white-collar offenders?
A. A “Status Shield” is provided by occupation prestige.
B. Due to the complex nature of white-collar cases, more lenient punishments are justified
C. White-collar criminals can afford better attorneys compared to traditional offenders.
D. White-collar offenders typically are more physically attractive.

3. Which regulatory style addresses violations most aggressively?
A. Legalistic agencies
B. Free-agent style
C. Retributive strategy
D. Watchmen style

4. Some of the judges studied believe that, in addition to jail time, _______ is a powerful deterrent to future
white-collar crime.
A. refusal to plea bargain
B. publicity
C. a large fine
D. community service

5. What is ironic about the short prison sentences white-collar offenders are likely to receive?
A. Most depression and adjustment problems occur in the first few months of imprisonment.
B. The appeal process for the prison sentences is almost always lengthier than the prison term.
C. The short sentences can still ruin their life and career.
D. With short sentences, white-collar offenders are more likely to offend again or from prison because they have the attitude that
it can’t get any worse.

6. Based on research, which type of offender is more likely to neutralize his or her actions?
A. Male workers
B. Older workers
C. Younger workers
D. Executives

7. If a prosecutor agrees not to prosecute a corporation if the corporation agrees to conditions that must be
completed over a probation period, the prosecutor has used which of the following?
A. Null Prosecution Agreement
B. Recessed Prosecution Agreement
C. Non-Prosecution Agreement
D. Deferred Prosecution Agreement

8. According to Merton, white-collar workers who accept neither the goals of society nor the means to
achieve those goals are
A. retreatists.
B. nonconformists.
C. rebels.
D. innovators.

9. Which of the following is not an aspect of the judicial response to white-collar crimes?
A. Rarely involves more than one judicial proceeding
B. Presents numerous complexities to those involved in adjudicating the case
C. Processed through several different judicial proceedings
D. Involve the efforts of many different actors in the judicial process

10. Which of the following describes the victim’s role in the white-collar crime trial process?
A. Victims are extremely involved throughout the entire process.
B. As of 2004, victims can now speak prior to sentencing hearings.
C. Victims, especially if the victim is a corporation, help to pay for prosecution costs.
D. Victims have no role in the judicial process other than referring the case to authorities.

11. White-collar criminal investigations are considered extremely complex because
A. conventional interrogation methods are used.
B. a fraud case can include as much as 250,000 pages of information.
C. the systematic approach contributes to the complexity.
D. all the players have the same goal.

12. Which strategy for gathering evidence in a white-collar crime case specifically employs the principle of
A. Audits
B. Undercover strategies
C. Whistleblowers
D. Record reviews

13. Cesare Beccaria’s criteria for effective punishment include all the following except that punishment
must be
A. certain.
B. related to the crime.
C. swift.
D. proportional to the crime.

14. Filing unnecessary or unwarranted appeals or misusing furloughs is considered
A. a result of more lenient treatment of white-collar criminals.
B. expected behavior among white-collar criminals.
C. deviant misuse of the justice process.
D. part of the way white-collar criminals stay out of jail.

15. Neutralization theory stipulates that neutralization must occur before the criminal act, so the offender
A. learns new behavior.
B. can develop the skills to commit the crime.
C. perceives the positive consequences if he’s caught.
D. has the mental strength to commit the crime.

16. Equalizing the sentences imposed for street crimes and white-collar crimes was behind the passage of
A. Criminal Disparity Act.
B. Comprehensive Sentencing Act.
C. Sentencing Reform Act.
D. White-Collar Offenders’ Reform Bill.

17. Which of the following is not a way in which international cooperation can be improved?
A. Develop police networks with a common language
B. Identify communication channels
C. Have one agency with representatives from several countries in charge of policing international crime
D. Provide more education regarding international response

18. What factor has been found to be correlated with both street and white-collar crime?
A. Poverty
B. Anxiety
C. Stress
D. Depression

19. Parallel proceedings have been questioned because of potential problems with all of the following
A. due process violations.
B. missed deadlines for bankruptcy proceedings.
C. double jeopardy.
D. excessive fines.

20. The theory that provides insight into the interconnections among various societal systems and the way
those systems influence white-collar crime is the _______ theory.
A. societal
B. systems
C. strain
D. institutional anomie



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Exam: 501160RR – White-Collar Crime in the Economy
1. What variety of environmental crime was the Love Canal tragedy a result of?
A. Illegal disposal of hazardous waste
B. Harmful destruction of property and wildlife
C. Misuse of federal facilities and public land
D. Illegal emissions

2. Which of the following is not considered an environmental crime?
A. Disposing of radioactive wastewater at a municipal sewerage treatment plant
B. Failing to build appropriate fences around zoo animals
C. Removing asbestos ceiling tiles in a 75-year-old building
D. Disposing of old appliances on the side of a rural road

3. When a lending institution allows a home to be sold for an amount lower than what the homeowner
owed on the property, it’s fostering
A. equity skimming.
B. bank fraud.
C. a short sale.
D. a deflated appraisal.

4. Forging a homeowner’s signature on an equity line of credit application is a type of
A. equity fraud.
B. foreclosure rescue scam.
C. equity skimming.
D. reverse mortgage fraud.

5. All of the following are consequences of environmental crime except _______ costs.
A. political
B. economic
C. physical
D. community

6. Richard, a realtor, continues to sell the same property in order to generate fees and commissions. This is
an example of
A. churning.
B. a fraudulent loan.
C. a liar loan.
D. a home improvement scam.

7. Outrageous or unbelievable claims about hair and weight loss products are frequently not supported by
customer experiences of consumer reviews. These are examples of which of the following?
A. Price gouging
B. Bait and switch
C. Price discrimination
D. False advertising

8. Crimes in the economic system are usually classified as
A. market manipulation.
B. economic crimes.
C. computer crimes.
D. investment fraud.

9. If a tenant who lives in a slumlord-run property organizes tenants and mobilizes them to post negative
reviews of the slumlord run property, they have participated in which of the following?
A. Health consequences
B. Grassroots response
C. Legislative consequences
D. Financial consequences

10. The CEO for Tyco stole $120 million in bonuses and lied about the value of his company so the price
of its stock would increase. He was charged with
A. Ponzi scheme, false regulatory filings, and conspiracy to commit securities fraud.
B. fraud, conspiracy, and lying to banks.
C. grand larceny, conspiracy, and falsifying records.
D. securities fraud, insider trading, and wire fraud.

11. If two consumers, John , a 34-year-old white male, and Jessica , a 44-year-old African-American
female, both go to a car dealership and purchase the same car, but John pays a significantly higher price,
this could be an example of which of the following?
A. Bid rotation
B. Complementary bidding
C. Price gouging
D. Price discrimination

12. Omitting key information about an investment and creating negative consequences is a component of
A. insider trading.
B. broker embezzlement.
C. hedge fund fraud.
D. broker fraud.

13. What does the “Cradle to the Grave” provision of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act refer
A. The idea that companies can’t create waste if they don’t have a plan for its disposal ahead of time
B. The means through which companies can dispose of waste
C. Legal places in which companies can dispose of waste
D. The responsibility of the creator of the waste to track it from creation to disposal

14. Which of the following was not a criticism of British Petroleum’s response to the Deepwater Horizon
rig explosion?
A. BP’s CEO went vacationing on his yacht shortly after the explosion.
B. Its plan referenced a wildlife expert who had died five years before the explosion.
C. BP’s response plan listed animals that don’t live in the vicinity of the rig.
D. BP initially overestimated the extent of the problem.
15. If all cable television providers in a state agreed not to provide services to lower income communities,
this would be an example of which of the following?
A. Complementary bidding
B. Group boycotts
C. Price discrimination
D. Price gouging

16. Mika and Sean are discussing flipping. Mika says that legitimate flipping occurs when a home is bought
and sold numerous times at inflated prices. Sean says legitimate flipping occurs when an investor purchases
a home, fixes it up, and then sells the home for a profit. Who is correct?
A. Only Sean is correct.
B. Neither is correct.
C. Both are correct.
D. Only Mika is correct.

17. Which of the following is not an example of a crime in the economic system?
A. Corporate espionage
B. Ponzi schemes
C. Advance fee fraud
D. Broker embezzlement

18. If Jason, whose home has recently gone into foreclosure, burned down his home in order to have his
insurance company pay off the mortgage debt, he engaged in
A. equity fraud.
B. foreclosure rescue scam.
C. straw buyer fraud.
D. dual settlement statements fraud.

19. While there are a variety of different types of student loan/aid fraud, which of the following is
considered by many as one that could undermine the stability of colleges and of the federal government to
continue to offer student loans?
A. Lying about intent to take classes
B. Lying about grades
C. Lying about parents’ income
D. Taking out loans with no intention of paying them back

20. What type of offense was seen in the aftermath of Hurricane Katrina when gas prices were raised
A. Price discrimination
B. Market allocation
C. Price fixing
D. Price gouging