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Question 1 of 20 5.0 Points The measure of how much we understood and learned in a college course is referred to as: A. assessments. B. grades. C. testing. D. feedback.
Question 2 of 20 5.0 Points Testing: A. is the only basis of grades in college. B. requires excellent writing and research skills. C. creates anxiety for those who did not study well. D. is the primary means of evaluating student performance.
Question 3 of 20 5.0 Points The best way to reduce stress and anxiety in testing is: A. getting sleep and eating healthy. B. greathing well during testing. C. prepare and study well. D. take good notes.
Question 4 of 20 5.0 Points Test-taking strategies are about knowing how to: A. study. B. memorize subject matter. C. take a test. D. take good notes.
Question 5 of 20 5.0 Points Most students’ goal is to: A. pass the course. B. avoid failing the test. C. get good grades. D. reduce test anxiety.
Question 6 of 20 5.0 Points The difference between taking a test in an online course and a traditional class is: A. the online test is easier. B. reviewing is not as rigorous because the online test is generally open-book. C. the professor is not present and available to the students during the online test. D. the online test is harder.
Question 7 of 20 5.0 Points An essay-type exam is an example of a(n): A. objective test. B. written test. C. subjective test. D. academic writing.
Question 8 of 20 5.0 Points An example of an objective test is: A. short answers. B. essay-type exam. C. fill in the blanks. D. discussion board.
Question 9 of 20 5.0 Points A discussion board in an online course can be another form of: A. communication. B. assessment. C. objective test. D. free expression.
Question 10 of 20 5.0 Points In multiple-choice exams, answers containing __________ such as always, every, and never are generally the wrong answers. A. action words B. evaluators C. extreme modifiers D. subjective words
Question 11 of 20 5.0 Points Which is the better strategy in multiple-choice exams? A. Answer questions sequentially. B. Skip the question when you are not sure of the answer and return later. C. Answer the hard questions first. D. Answer questions in reverse order.
Question 12 of 20 5.0 Points Open-book exams can be more difficult than expected because they: A. are very detailed. B. cover a lot of material. C. are timed. D. are monitored.
Question 13 of 20 5.0 Points Which is the better strategy in essay type exams? A. The longer the answer, the better. B. Respond to the directive or action word. C. State the answer word for word. D. Be sure to use the keywords.
Question 14 of 20 5.0 Points When the directive word for an essay exam is criticize, it also means to: A. discuss. B. evaluate. C. justify. D. state.
Question 15 of 20 5.0 Points When you make your answer clear by giving an example, you: A. analyze. B. relate. C. illustrate. D. describe.
Question 16 of 20 5.0 Points Compare is to discover resemblances and differences, while contrast is to look for: A. causal connection. B. identifications. C. arguments. D. differences.
Question 17 of 20 5.0 Points To review your answer for correct spelling, grammar, complete sentences, and punctuation is to: A. revise. B. proofread. C. rewrite. D. edit. Question 18 of 20 5.0 Points Plagiarism is copying another’s work word for word, except when you copy and cite a(n): A. anecdote. B. quotation. C. statement. D. thesis.
Question 19 of 20 5.0 Points Explain, discuss, analyze, state, and evaluate are examples of __________ words in an essay-type exam. A. key. B. directive. C. instructive. D. interpretation.
Question 20 of 20 5.0 Points Objective and subjective tests, which include written and research papers, are called: A. test types. B. assessments. C. exams. D. qualifiers.


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(2.5 pt each) In order to receive credit for these problems, you must show all of the steps you took to arrive at your answers.
(c) Convert the following decimal number to binary:
. (10 pt) ASCII, Unicode, and EBCDIC are, of course, not the only numeric / character codes. The Sophomites from the planet Collegium use the rather strange code shown in the Figure below. There are only thirteen characters in the Sophomite alphabet, and each character uses a 5-bit code. In addition, there are four numeric digits, since the Sophomites use base 4 for their arithmetic. Given the following Sophomite sequence, what is the corresponding binary message being sent by the Sophomites?
(HINT: Decode the sequence reading from left to right then write the corresponding binary sequence using the values in the table provided, leaving a space between each binary sequence.)
b) The technologist’s notion of Moore’s Law is that the number of transistors per chip doubles approximately every 18 months. In the 1990s, Moore’s Law started to be described as the doubling of microprocessor power every 18 months. Given this new variation of Moore’s Law, answer the following: After successfully completing your computer organization and architecture class, you have a brilliant idea for a new chip design that would make a processor six times faster than the fastest ones on the market today. Unfortunately, it will take you four and a half years to save the money, create the prototype, and build a finished product. If Moore’s Law holds, should you spend your money developing and producing your chip or invest in some other venture? Explain your answer.
Input / Output
4. Consider the following questions about internal hardware size:
a) A single CPU processes one instruction at a time. Adding a second CPU (or core) allows the system to process two instructions simultaneously, effectively doubling the processing power of the system. A third core will offer triple the processing power of a single CPU, and so on. However, studies have shown that, in general, the expected increase in computing power starts to decline when the number of cores grows large, beyond eight or so. Why would you expect this to be the case?
b) The technologist’s notion of Moore’s Law is that the number of transistors per chip doubles approximately every 18 months. In the 1990s, Moore’s Law started to be described as the doubling of microprocessor power every 18 months. Given this new variation of Moore’s Law, answer the following: After successfully completing your computer organization and architecture class, you have a brilliant idea for a new chip design that would make a processor six times faster than the fastest ones on the market today. Unfortunately, it will take you four and a half years to save the money, create the prototype, and build a finished product. If Moore’s Law holds, should you spend your money developing and producing your chip or invest in some other venture? Explain your answer

5. (10 pt) Consider the interface between a laser printer and a computer. For a typical printout it is clearly impractical to send output data to the printer one byte or one word at a time. Instead, data to be printed is stored in a buffer at a known location in memory and transferred in blocks to memory in the printer. A controller in the printer then handles the actual printing from the printer’s memory.
The printer’s memory is not always sufficient to hold the entire printout data at one time. Printer problems, such as an ‘‘out of paper’’ condition, can also cause delays. Devise and describe, in as much detail as you can, an interrupt/DMA scheme that will assure that all documents will be successfully printed.
Computer Systems
6. (10 pt) Answer the following questions about PCI-Express:
a) As described in the Englander text, the PCI-Express bus consists of thirty-two ‘‘lanes.’’ As of January, 2009, each lane is capable of a maximum data rate of 500MB per second. Lanes are allocated to a device 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, or 32 lanes at a time. Assume that a PCI-Express bus is to be connected to a high definition video card that is supporting a 1920 × 1080 true-color (3 bytes per pixel) progressive scan monitor with a refresh rate of 60 frames per second. How many lanes will this video card require to support the monitor at full capability?
b) Why is a multilane PCI-Express bus not subject to the same problem of skew as an equivalent parallel bus?
7. (10 pt) Answer the following questions about communication protocols.
a. Explain the differences between TCP and UDP in the context of ordering a number of items from an online seller, such as Then, indicate which protocol you would choose to make purchases.
b. Describe the difference between the physical topology of a network and the logical topology of a network.
c. Each of the input and output ports on a router have a separate physical address. Why is this an important requirement for the operation of a router in a network?
8. (10 pt) In the context of network security, explain the purpose of non-repudiation. How does non-repudiation differ from authentication? Create a business scenario that illustrates the importance of each.
. (10 pt) What operating system functions would you expect to find in the computer that is built in to control your automobile, and which functions would be omitted? Provide at least two of each. Justify your answer.
File Management
11. Answer the following:
a. (5 pt) Use the following four processes that have arrived in the ready queue in the sequence shown below and answer the following about process scheduling:
• Process 1 has a total run time of 25 seconds and a priority of 2, but it will require 15 seconds of I/O after 10 seconds of execution
• Process 2 has a total run time of 30 seconds, a priority of 1, but it will require 10 seconds of I/O after 20 seconds of execution
• Process 3 has a total run time of 15 seconds and a priority of 3
• Process 4 has a total run time of 20 seconds, a priority of 2, but it will require 15 seconds of I/O after 5 seconds of execution
(i) Using either shortest job first or non-preemptive priority queue scheduling algorithms will result in all four processes completing at the same time, but not in the same order.

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Question 1
Which of the following is true of gatekeepers?
They are not bound to ethical duties.
Investors and boards are examples of gatekeepers.
They serve as intermediaries between market participants.
They are not responsible for ensuring conformance to fairness in the marketplace.
Question 2
Which of the following is the final step in the ethical decision-making process?
Identifying the ethical issues involved
Monitoring and learning from outcomes
Considering how a decision affects stakeholders
Identifying key stakeholders
Question 3
Which of the following explains the term “satisficing?”
Striving to select only the best alternative
Following simplified decision rules
Selecting the alternative simply because it is the easy way out
Selecting the alternative that meets minimum decision criteria
Question 4
When does issue identification become the first step in the ethical decision-making process?
When you are not accountable for the decision
When you are solely responsible for a decision
When you are presented with an issue from the start
Under all circumstances

Question 5
Which omission occurs when decision makers fail to notice gradual variations over time?
Inattentional blindness
Incremental blindness
Change blindness
Normative myopia
Question 1
Which of the following is a set of processes for creating, communicating, and delivering value to customers and for managing customer relationships in ways that benefit the organization and its stakeholders?
Question 2
The legal doctrine of strict liability is ethically controversial because:
it assumes informed consent of the buyer, and therefore, it is assumed to be ethically legitimate.
it allows consumers to assume that products are safe for use.
it holds that consumer demand depends upon what producers sell.
it holds a business accountable for paying damages whether or not it was at fault.
Question 3
Which of the following is one of the “Four Ps” of marketing?
Question 4
Greater consumption is likely to lead to unhappiness, a condition termed __________.
caveat emptor
Question 5
Marketing practices targeted at elderly populations for goods, such as supplemental health insurance, funerals, etc. are subject to criticism because:
that population is vulnerable.
interest gained on such investments are not highly profitable.
they target the considered and rational desires of the consumers.
they do not abide by the principles of welfare economics.
Question 6
A consumer’s consent to purchase a product is not informed if that consumer is:
unwilling to listen to the product details from the sales person.
injured after using the product and filed a product liability suit.
asked to buy a product without a warranty.
being misled or deceived about the product.
Question 7
Which of the following statements is true about manipulation?
It involves total control of direction or management.
A person cannot manipulate someone without deception.
It implies guiding people’s behavior with their conscious understanding.
To manipulate something is to guide or direct its behavior.
Question 8
Which of the following statements is true about negligence?
It is not a central component of tort law.
One can be negligent by doing something that one should not.
One cannot be held negligent by failing to do something that one should have done.
It excludes acts of both commission and omission.
Question 9
Society creates a strong incentive for businesses to produce safer goods and services by holding them responsible for any harm their products cause. This claim supports the:
strict product liability standard.
actual foreseeability standard.
reasonable person standard.
consent and informed decision standard.
Question 10
Identify one of the implications of the “dependence effect.”
Unless a seller explicitly warrants a product as safe, buyers are liable for any harm they suffer.
Advertising and marketing create consumer wants that support the entire economy.
The court’s ruling on product liability cases is dependent on the extent of manipulation.
By creating consumer wants, advertising and other marketing practices violate consumer autonomy.


APA Format


Case Study Analysis Paper
A significant criminal event may occur at any place and at any time. The size of the jurisdiction does not dictate the scope and scale of the incident. It is perfectly possible, even predictable, that investigative needs will be beyond the resources and/or sophistication of a local law enforcement agency. In such cases, one option is to expand the resources available through multiagency collaboration and cooperation (e.g., a task force). However, regardless of who or how many investigative resources are brought to bear on an incident, the parent agency remains responsible for the successful outcome of the criminal investigation.
Project Setting
Acting as a subject matter expert on criminal investigation, you have been asked to assist in the creation of a simulation exercise of a multijurisdictional criminal investigation. Some of the preliminary work has already been completed. Your specific task is to compile the post investigation review document (rubric) to be used by exercise assessors in their evaluation of the quality of the criminal investigation. This is what you know:
A series of 11 random explosions have occurred in an area that traverses two states, and a total of seven counties (five counties in one state and two counties in the other state), embracing a total of nine cities and incorporated towns. The explosions resulted in five deaths, 32 injuries, and significant property damage. In each case, the explosion was detonated remotely. The lead investigative agency is the Virtual, Maryland, Police Department, because the first three explosions occurred within its jurisdiction. VPD has about 100 sworn personnel, including 17 all-purpose detective investigators. It has a certified forensic laboratory for rudimentary analysis, staffed by credentialed civilians. Ultimately, two suspects were identified and apprehended, one adult male and one teenage (minor) male. Statements were made by each, resulting in investigative searches and seizures of forensic evidence. Both subjects eventually confessed to their respective and collective parts in the crimes.
Assessors in the simulation exercise will be debriefing the role players as to their actions; their understanding of the legal basis, purpose, and advantages and disadvantages of their investigative strategies; and the conduct of the investigation. The assessors have already come up with a series of questions for the participants. You have been asked to provide the “model” answer against which the responses of the participants will be graded.
Following are the questions to be posed by the simulation exercise assessors to the investigators:
Investigative Task Force
Assuming that legal authority was not an issue, should this investigation be conducted by VPD personnel or a multijurisdictional task force?
At what point should the potential of establishing an investigative task force be considered?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of an investigative task force?
Who, or what entities, should be involved in the decision to create an investigative task force?
Assuming, on balance, that you favor a task force approach, what difficulties do you foresee, and how will each be addressed?
What demands and/or concessions should VPD exercise in order to employ a cooperative task force in this particular case?
Legal Issues
1. What legal issues should be considered when embarking on a task force investigative strategy?
2. How are each of these issues resolved?
Forensic Evidence Collection and Analysis
Without regard to individual items of forensic evidence, describe the steps necessary to ensure that items, materials, and samples are eligible as forensic evidence in a criminal proceeding. Why?
In what ways do the evidence collection procedures differ at the scenes of the explosions versus the residences of each of the suspects?
D. Testimonial Evidence
1. Describe the steps necessary to ensure that verbal or written communications from each of the suspects are eligible as testimonial evidence in a criminal proceeding.
2. Describe the direct and indirect consequences if the testimonial evidence is deemed inadmissible by the trial court.
E. Public Information
As the investigation proceeds, in general terms, what information is or is not available to
Non-VPD members of the task force?
Other law enforcement agencies?
Family members of the deceased and injured victims?
Credentialed news reporters?
Community members?
Who should be the point of contact for investigative information, and how should that designation be decided?
Project Assignment
You will compose a comprehensive “model” response for each of the questions posed by the simulation exercise assessors. Note: This project submission is enhanced by outside resources that support the appropriateness of the model responses. Creditable resources and citations (or lack thereof) will be graded accordingly.
Grading for this project will be based on
The comprehensiveness of the model responses. Your description of reasons and rationales for the responses provided. Your general understanding of cooperation and collaboration in conducting criminal investigations. The clarity and efficiency of your writing
Review of this project will help the instructor determine your ability to communicate effectively across a wide variety of stakeholders apply sound knowledge of administration, leadership, and organizational principles to a law enforcement agency. Use interpersonal and leadership skills to work both independently and cooperatively as a member of a criminal justice team
Format Requirements
Paper should be a minimum of 2,500 words or about ten pages.
Double space, 12 pt. font, 1” margins,
Use APA citations for all sources.
Include reference page using APA format guidelines (not included in word count)
Additionally –
Create a cover page for your assignment (not included in word count)
Include your name.
Course title and number.
Project title.
Date of submission

MM305 Unit 7 Project


• In this project you will be using the States Data file that is found in Doc Sharing under the Instructor Graded Projects:
• Steps for accessing the States Data file:
1. Open your Excel with PhStat2
2. Click File—Open
3. Select the States Data file
• Not all questions require the use of technology or the States Date file.
• You may insert your answers, including any charts, graphs, or output, on this document.
• Be sure to put your name on this document and save it to your computer.

1.  Even though independent gasoline stations have been having a difficult time, Susan Solomon has been thinking about starting her own independent gas station. Susan’s problem is to decide how large her station should be. The annual returns will depend on both the size of the station and a number of marketing factors related to oil industry and demand for gasoline. After careful analysis, Susan developed the following table:

Size of Gasoline Station Good Market ($) Fair Market ($) Poor Market ($)
Small $70,000 $30,000 -$30,000
Medium $110,000 $50,000 -$40,000
Large $170,000 $70,000 -$50,000

1. Develop a decision table for this decision
2. What is the Maximax decision?
3. What is the Maximin decision?
4. What is the criterion of realism decision? Use α = 0.6.
5. Develop an Opportunity Loss Table
6. What is the Minimax Regret Decision?
2. Data collected on the yearly demand for 50-pound bags of fertilizer at Sunshine Garden Supply are shown in the following table.
Use Excel QM to:

1. Develop a three-year moving average to forecast sales in year 12.

Year Demand for Fertilizer
(1,000s of Bags) 3-Year Moving
1 4
2 7
3 5
4 5 5.33
5 10 5.67
6 7 6.67
7 8 7.33
8 9 8.33
9 11 8.00
10 14 9.33
11 15 11.33
12 —- 13.33
2. Develop a 3-year weighted average to predict demand in year 12, in which sales in the most recent year is given a weight of 2 and sales in the two years prior to that are each given a weight of 1.
3. Develop a regression/trend line to estimate the demand for fertilizer in year 12.
4. Based on the three forecasts you have created, which forecast is the most accurate?
3. Kaplan College has decided to “wire” its campus. The first stage in this effort is to install the “backbone,” i.e., to connect all the buildings. The table below gives the distances between the various buildings on campus in hundreds of feet.
1. How should the buildings be connected to minimize the total length of cable?
2. What length of cable is required?
4. The following represents the distances in miles from a warehouse (node 1) to various cities in Montana. The major outlet store is located at node 7.

From Node To Node Distance
1 2 40
1 4 100
2 3 20
2 4 30
3 4 60
3 5 40
3 6 20
4 5 70
4 7 50
5 6 50
5 7 80
6 7 40
1. Find the shortest route and distance from Node 1 to Node 7.
5. The network of a city sewer system and their capacities are shown below. Remember that the arc has both capacity and reverse capacity. For example, row 1 is the flow from node 1 to node 2 and row 2 is the reverse flow from node 2 to node 1. There are eight branches in this network.
Determine the maximum flow (in hundreds of gallons of water per minute) from node 1 to node 5
6. The governor of Michigan believes that the state can improve the state’s crime rate if the state can reduce the college debt carried by its citizens and if they can increase the percent of the population covered by health insurance.

1. Using the States Data Set and PHStat, create the multiple regression prediction equation.
2. Predict the crime rate for Michigan if the college debt were $25,000 and the percent not covered by insurance was 10?

7. A concessionaire for the local ballpark has developed a table of conditional values for the various alternatives (stocking decisions) and states of nature (size of crowd).

Stocking Decision Large Crowd ($) Average Crowd ($) Small Crowd ($)
Large Inventory $22,000 $12,000 -$2,000
Average Inventory $15,000 $12,000 $6,000
Small Inventory $9,000 $6,000 $5,000

If the probabilities associated with the states of nature are 0.30 for a large crowd, 0.50 for an average crowd, and 0.20 for a small crowd, determine:

1. The alternative that provides the greatest expected monetary value (EMV).
2. The expected value of perfect information (EVPI).